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41 Replies

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas disagreed…5mos5MO

I assume you are referring to the Laws of Identity, Non-Contradiction, and Excluded Middle, right? Those "Laws of Logic"? I ask because your argument that these require a god, or even a religion/spirituality, makes no sense. We made up these laws of logic when we made up language and communication. Without our sentient interpretation of the universe, assigning meaning to the world around us, the universe has no objective "logic" to begin with. The universe simply exists whether or not we were ever here to even come up with the word "existing". Logic only exists…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington disagreed…4mos4MO

We made up these laws of logic when we made up language and communication.

If we made up laws of logic when we made up language and communication, how does one explain the fact that they are universal, applicable everywhere, and unchanging. If like language, they were mere products of our minds, they could not apply outside our finite minds, making them impossible to apply to the universe or world around us. If we merely used the laws of logic because they work and life goes better for us when we use them, that's well and good, but it necessitates their existence before the creation of man. And if laws or logic were just agreed upon objections, why does every…  Read more

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

If we made up laws of logic when we made up language and communication, how does one explain the fact that they are universal, applicable everywhere, and unchanging.

Because that's how language and communication works. Two people can point at a dog and call it two different things in two different languages, but both words are still referring to the exact same thing. We made up the multiple different languages that still communicate the exact same words and meanings that we assigned to things. The "laws of logic" are merely conditions of our own understanding of how we communica…  Read more

  @Patriot-#1776Constitution from Washington commented…4mos4MO

If man made up the laws of logic as he made up language, they would not be universally-applicable laws at all, but rather fickle and changing as the majority decides.

  @VulcanMan6  from Kansas commented…4mos4MO

I literally addressed this exact claim of yours in my last paragraph; did you just not read my response or are you choosing to be willfully ignorant? Here's how I explained why your statement is incorrect:

No, because the "laws of logic" are not like legal laws; the laws of logic are dependent on our own definitions of words and meanings. We did not "decide" on what the laws of logic are, the laws of logic are merely properties of language and communication. Think of it like math: we did not "make up" mathematics in the sense that we "decided that 1+1=2", we simply made up numbers Read more

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